He said to them, How then does David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
He said to them, How then does David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
He saith unto them, How then doth David in the Spirit call him Lord, saying,
He says to them, How then does David in the Spirit give him the name of Lord, saying,
He saith to them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
He said to them, "How then does David in the Spirit call him Lord, saying,
He saith unto them, How then doth David in the Spirit call him Lord, saying,
How then doth David in spirit (or by the Spirit - by the inspiration of the Spirit of God) call him Lord? saying,
How then ... - How is this doctrine that he is "descended" from David consistent with what David says when he calls him "lord?" How can your opinion be reconciled with that? That declaration of David is recorded in Psalm 110:1. A "lord" or master is a superior. The word here does not necessarily imply divinity, but only superiority. David calls him his superior, his lord, his master, his lawgiver, and expresses his willingness to obey him. If the Messiah was to be merely a descendant of David, as other men descended from parents if he was to have a human nature only if he did not exist when David wrote - with what propriety could he, then, call him his lord?
In spirit - By the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. As a prophet, Acts 2:30; Acts 1:16; 2 Samuel 23:2.
22:43 How doth David then by the Spirit - By inspiration, call him Lord? If he be merely the son (or descendant) of David? If he be, as you suppose, a mere man, the son of a man?